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Since we have demonstrated from scripture, the time the place the circumstances, of Paul's writings within his lifetime prior to his death (6768 A.D.), it follows that
the other writings of the New Testament need to be addressed.
Chronology of other writers
Admittedly, we cannot prove the exact date concerning the writings of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Peter, James or Jude. We can demonstrate from the
internal evidence of scripture the time in which they were not written. To wit: every book of the aforementioned writers was completed prior to the destruction of Jerusalem
(69 - 70 A.D.). The weight of evidence simply confirms the truth (even by the socalled experts) of Paul's proclamation in Col. 1:25-26: “…I am made a minister, according to the
dispensation of God….to fulfill (or complete) the word of God, the mystery…”. That is with the possible exception of John's writings. Hence, we turn to the testimony of
scripture itself. -- Are you listening?
What does the Word of God say through Peter?
"But the end (Greek, telos, [telos] meaning actual
end) is at hand (Greek, eggus,[eggus] meaning "near"). (I Pet. 4:7).
What does the Word of God say through James:
"Be ye also patient...the coming (Greek, parousia, [parousia] “along side,”
personal presence) of the Lord draweth nigh...the Judge standeth before the door." (James 5:8,9).
What inspired Apostle Paul to write in his next to last epistle just before "the Mystery"?
"The night is far spent, the day is at hand (Greek, eggus, meaning “near") (Rom. 13:12).
"...the God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet shortly." (Rom. 16:20).
"...so that you come behind in no gifts waiting for the coming (Greek, apokalupsis, [apokalupsis] meaning the revelation) of our Lord Jesus Christ (I Cor. 1:7).
Jude wrote of the coming judgment, i.e., Jerusalem. His theme is "Remember the apostasy" (v. 7, 1125).
Now concerning the writings of John:
"Blessed is he that readeth, and they that hear the words of this prophecy, and keep the things which are written therein: for the time (Greek, kairos, [kairos] meaning a specific or appointed time, etc.) is at hand." (Rev. 1:3). The other Greek word for time is chronos, [chronos] meaning time in general. The time at hand (Greek, eggus, meaning "near"). [As in Rev. 1:3,
the word for time, Gr. kairos, also appears in Revelation 22:10.
Now, turning to I John:
"Little children, it is the last time: (Greek, hora, [hora] meaning “hour,” i.e., "the last hour") and ye have heard that antichrist shall come . Even now are there many
antichrists; whereby we know it is the last time (hora)." (I John 2:18). But he didn't come. What happened, John?
Lastly, there is John's Gospel: “He came unto His own, and His own received Him not"
(John 1:11). This verse refers either to His rejection at Calvary or His rejection at Acts 28:28. Calvary 30 A.D. [more likely Ed.] Acts 28:28 - 60 A.D.
Moreover, John stated in John 5:2 about Jerusalem: "Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market..." Note carefully, he does not say: "Now there
was..." [So, we can conclude that the sheep market was in existence
when John wrote this. History records that at the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D., nothing was left standing and as Jesus had told His disciples , … “There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.” (Matt. 24:2). Ed.]
Some may say, "that's just nitpicking!" But is it? Consider carefully and you be the judge: "… til heaven and earth pass, one jot or one
tittle shall in no wise pass…" (Matt. 5:18). Ask yourself which is more important, a jot or a tittle, or proper grammar, which establishes time? You be the judge!
[Editor’s comments: Regarding the Book of Revelation, a common traditional error on Rev. 1:10 teaches that John was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day
(Sunday). The literal translation is: “I came to be in (Greek, en [en]) (the) Spirit in (Greek, en [en]) the imperial (or, of the Lord) day or, in the day of the Lord. Notice the “in” is the same Greek word, but the
translators made the second “in” an “on.” The proper interpretation of this verse is that the Apostle John, in the Spirit, was ushered into the time period, the Day of the Lord, and not
on Sunday (the Lord’s Day), which would have had no significance. We know that the book of Revelation deals with the time period known as the Day of the Lord. Consider further:
When Peter wrote in 60 A.D. from Babylon (I Pet. 5:l3), from the statements in I Pet. 1:12-13 and II Pet. 3:10-13, it is evident he knew
of the contents of Revelation. Paul, in 52-55 A.D. was aware of the Revelation, as evidenced by I Cor. 1:7 and II Thess 1:7. Also, Hebrews refers to a heavenly city, the new Jerusalem (Heb. 11:10, 12:22, 13:14) and the
only other reference to that city is in Revelation 21:2. The writer of Hebrews, (we believe to be Paul - Heb. 13:23-24) knew
of the contents of Revelation at that point in time. Hence, the Book of Revelation was written, not in 90-96 A.D., as tradition teaches, but before the seven books of The Mystery, and
well before the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.]
In any case, whether it be John's writings or any other supposedly written after “the Mystery,” the Word of God would be
broken. Needless to say, this cannot be.
"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after
Christ." Col. 2:8.
C. E. McLain, 11/12/87.
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